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#1
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I'm watching a video of bigjoe and I see him open raise t150 JTs UTG+2 on BB50. Few minutes after, he open raise from UTG with QJs, t150 on BB50.
Is it standard ? I don't think so. Could you explain me why he raised in this spot ? Thanks |
#2
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I really don't like this either. If he can play extremely well postflop (which I'm sure he can), I guess it's ok. Some people can make a more laggy early game style work for them. I would recommend against it though, especially when multitabling.
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#3
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havent seen the vids but im pretty sure he does this at a certain optimal frequency in order to get max value when he actually has big hands in these utg utg+1 situations. moreover, he probably plays good enough post flop to not make this a huge leak.
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#4
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This is a good play to add if you are playing in games with regulars who pay attention as your other raises will get more action and these are the types of hands that are best to add to balance your range.
In reality it is very rare you will see a showdown so you won't improve your image much and at lower limits where you will get action a lot it is a bad play. |
#5
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He doesn ot explain this in the video ? Would be interesting.
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#6
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So when he raises and the field mucks, or he cbets and they muck, does he show his hand?
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