Genius or idiot?

[Ignignokt]

I know you've already formed an idea on that (I don't want to hear it. [img]/images/graemlins/grin.gif[/img]), but it's a play I'm talking about:

Basically it's a free-card play with overcards. I do this almost strictly at B&M where my reads are pretty solid:

1. I pick up AK and raise in position. I get one caller who's somewhere between donkey and drunk. He'll play all aces, low PPs or sooooted paint vs. a PFR. He bluffs very rarely.

2. Flop comes Qxx or Jxx or Txx, disconnected board. Villain bets. I raise.

What makes this iffy is that 95% of the time this particular villain has me beat here. He either has a low pair and can be reasonably certain the Q didn't help me (most villains assume AK unless shown otherwise), or he caught a pair on the flop.

On the other hand, the vast majority of the time his hand is shaky at best. If he DID flop top pair, chances are he doesn't like his kicker; if he has a low PP the raise has got to make him uncertain that I don't have AQ/QQ.

Of course, I don't intend on putting another dime into the pot UI; he's unlikely to fold anything.

Questions:

Is this play +EV? If I'm that sure I'm beaten, should I just be folding? Or is my evidence a small sample size, and in the long run I'll run into a bluff here enough that it's worth the one BB?

I have occasionally also done this with JJ-KK when an ace falls and a coldcaller donks. I've never seen this situation end with villain not showing a weak ace. Does a flop raise have any value whatsoever?