Standard Deviation Question

[Troll_Inc]

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
Coin flipping has finite variance.

Poker's variance has infinite possibilities.

[/ QUOTE ]

Having infinite possibilities doesn't imply infinite variance. And the distribution of the outcome of a single hand in NLH has finite variance unless you assume two players have infinite bankrolls.
Thus the outcome of n hands will converge to a normal distribution with large n. But this convergence is very much slower than most people suspect it to be. I.e. BB/100 is by no means normal, BB/1000 isn't, BB/1m probably comes close.

[/ QUOTE ]

Same problem here.....starts talking about variance then stumbles into the mean (average).