Does Villain owe me money?

[gobbledygeek]

Playing 2/4 limit in the local casino with an a-hole I've played with a few times before; he's not a casino noob, he knows what he's doing.

Earlier in the night, he loses his buy in, asks for a hold and goes for a walk for half an hour. He comes back to the table on his big blind; the dealer asks if he wants to play, he taps the table, says yes and receives his cards. He then folds on the flop but it turns out he never did have any money behind. His friend wins the pot so no one really complains; again he asks for a hold and takes a walk for half an hour.

So then a-hole sits back down at the table again. Another dealer (a rookie) deals him some cards in EP; on his turn he taps the table and says "raise up to four" and the dealer then asks if he has money behind. A-hole mumbles something that sounds to me like "forty" but he could just be repeating his raise of "four". No one has noticed whether he has actually given any money to a chip runner. I coldcall in SB, flop a set and lead out. A-hole calls, MP raises and action comes back to me where I 3bet. Before a-hole can act, MP asks the dealer if a-hole does indeed have money coming. There's some confusion, the pit is called and, since there has been significant action in the hand and a-hole doesn't actually have money coming, kills his hand. My set holds up and I win the pot.

My question: Does a-hole still owe me 6 bucks? Or does the fact that pit killed his hand clean the slate and everything is even?

I never complained about it at the time, but now I'm thinking of bringing it up with a-hole if I ever play with him again; but only if I have the right to. I know 6 bucks is stupid to argue over, but hey, that's 5 hours of work for me at the 2/4 table!

GcluelessnoobG