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This is as close to the hand as I can remember it.
I am dealt 9[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]9[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] in MP. Blinds are $0.25/$0.50. Action folds to me and I make a standard raise to $1.50. Player to my left calls $1.50. Everyone folds to the BB who raises it to $4.00. I call, player to my left calls as well. Flop comes 9[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]10[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]6[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]. I lead out for $5.00, player to my left calls. BB pushes it all in for about $25 more. I reraise all in (sitting with about $40) and the player to my left also goes all in with about $15 We flip cards and I am in great shape. Player to my left has K[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]J[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] (wow) and the player in the BB has A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]A[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]. However, the turn is the Q[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] and the river is the J[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]. Giving the BB player an Ace high flush. Is there anyway I could of played this hand differently or is the guy with pocket aces always going to make that call. |
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