Is player all-in?

[Jauron]

Friend of mine was telling a story tonight I've never heard and I'm pretty sure he got a raw deal.

$1/$2 NL

EP Goes AI for $10, 2 callers behind, friend raises to $30 and it gets back around to one of the callers who asks my friend how much he has left. My friend stacks his chips out front (not near his raise but in clear view) and shows he has $58 left. He then turns his heads and talks to someone who came up to him off the table. When he turns around his chips in are in the middle of the side pot, there is a flop and he asks what happened. It appears that smooth caller #1 set him in after asking, caller #2 folds and without asking my friend dealers scoops his chips and deals the flop (at which point he turns around). Friend objects and asks for the floor saying I hadn't acted yet and was only showing him how many chips I have.

Floor comes over and while there is discussion my friend says whatever if you say it's a call fine or I can have folded but I didn't agree to any action and would have folded to his raise. Floor says he folded and orders the $58 to be taken out of the side pot and to resume the hand.

All is well AND 3 hands later someone on the table not in the hand raises a fuss and asks the dealer if he thought he had called. Dealer says yes and the floor gets called back. Different floor guy decides my friend owes other guy $58 and orders him to pay it despite the 3 hand being dealt. Friend objects again and they threaten to throw him out.

Is there any possible justification for allowing a second decision 3 hands later in which my friend has no chance to win the pot since his hand is mucked?