#24
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Re: 20NL: 2nd pair vs. shorty showing weakness
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[ QUOTE ] [ QUOTE ] also besides opening up a spot like this, it allows him to get away easily when u show aggression. Say he had AJ and has whiffed the flop, he cbets and u push, he folds whereas preflop u 3 bet, he pushes u call, 1010 holds up lame example really just something to think about as if he has nothing ur prob not getting his whole stack anymore [/ QUOTE ] What? [/ QUOTE ] Take the time to read it again. It's a great reason for 3betting preflop. The issue I had here was that the stack size was a little awkward. 40+ BB is a little too deep for pushing pre and if he flat calls, I will see a nasty flop more than 70% of the time, i.e. at least one overcard and I need to get my money in first to act without knowing anything. Like this I was able to evaluate first. Since I found the board reasonably safe since there was only one overcard hand he hasn't hit anything the huge majority of the time unless he has a bigger PP, I think I could proceed. This is a rationalization in hindsight, of course. But I think it's interesting to discuss what the best line is in general. Actually, I think this hand is a great example for playing a 40BB-60BB stack and playing a TP->all-in style. [/ QUOTE ] I actually took some time to read it the first time as it didn't really seem to make sense. PJ seems to be saying that he'd prefer to get it all in pre with 55% equity (or whatever) than to c/r the c-bet on a favourable flop and take down a decent pot uncontested. The latter is clearly better. This is only one example, which he admits is lame, but he explains it by saying 'if he has nothing [and you don't 3-bet] you're prob not getting his whole stack anymore.' This also seems an odd thing to say, since if he has nothing and you 3-bet he will almost certainly just fold. I thought these problems were quite intuitively obvious, so I expressed my incomprehension with the somewhat lazy 'What?' rather than spelling it out I have to say I don't really understand your post either. You say that PJ's argument is 'a great reason for 3-betting preflop' (in general? with 100bb stacks?) You then go on however to explain the advantages in this situation of not 3-betting pre-flop, especially given the stack sizes involved here, as if I hadn't read or understood any of the thread at all Forgive me though if I'm just being a donk as I don't mean any disrespect to either of you |
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