For moral relativists

[pvn]

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"My personal preferences are for moral systems which are consistent over those which are inconsistent, and for systems which treat all people as equal (morally) over systems that have different classes of people."

How could a moral relativist have any preference? By definition, if you have a preference then you aren't a moral relativist.

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Ya I agree. OP is saying he thinks some moral systems are better than others. That sounds like absolutism to me.

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How does having a preference make one an objectivist? I prefer coke to pepsi, but I do not think that coke is absolutely better than pepsi. Coke *is* better than pepsi according to my personal subjective preferences. And if my personal subjective preference indicates that, for example, high fructose corn syrup is (subjectively) bad, then diet coke is (working from those preferences) *objectively* better than coke OR pepsi (at least, the US versions thereof). But someone else may have different preferences.