Was this ruling correct?

[iillllii]

home poker game, freeze out tourney with 5 people left. MP1 is moderately shortstacked and raises before the flop, SB, who has him covered, is the only caller. Flop comes out, SB checks, MP1 bets about 2/3 of his remaining stack. SB thinks for a minute and then says "I'll call", and begins reaching for his chips. Right away, before the turn is dealt, MP1 says "ok I call" and tables his cards face up. MP1 thought SB had announced all in, didn't realize he merely announced a call.

What is the correct ruling here for how to play out the hand?

1 player (not in the hand) thought that it should be treated as a fold for MP1, saying he thought he saw that ruling on some WSOP broadcast. MP1 says that the hand he saw on TV probably involved someone throwing their hand in the muck, not tabling their cards.

MP1 says it was probably his own mistake, and the hand should go on as if MP1 had never exposed his hand. SB knows his hand, but oh well - it would be as if MP1 was holding his cards carefully and SB saw - you wouldn't treat that as a fold for MP1.


Another viewpoint (dealer) was that you kill action right there, capping the pot with SB's call, and deal out the turn and river and best hand takes the pot. Basically treating it like an all in although MP1 does not get to put in his remaining stack.

Thoughts?

P.S.

What ended up happening is the dealer got confused and thought the ruling was his idea of treating it as all in. He dealt the turn and river before a good conclusion could be reached, and MP1's top pair ended up losing by the river and SB took the pot. This obviously wasn't an ideal ruling but I'm wondering what would be.