The rule of 4 and 2

[Gen Sterling]

A couple of questions from the quote below.

[ QUOTE ]
Alice holds J[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]7[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]. Bob holds K[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]6[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]. After the flop, the board is 5[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]6[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]8[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]. If both hands are played to a showdown, Alice has a 45% chance to win, Bob has a 53% chance to win and there is a 2% chance to split the pot...

[/ QUOTE ]

The above is from a Wikpedia article. My question: with 14 outs (3 sevens, 4 fours, 4 nines and 3 Jacks), why isn't Alice's chances about 56%, according to the Rule of 4 and 2?

Okay, let's subtract the hearts, since runner-runner heart would give Bob a flush, and say that she has only ten outs: 2 sevens, 3 fours, 3 nines and 2 Jacks. This would make her chances about 40%, no?

How do we arrive at Bob's chances?

Finally, do we need to discount BOTH the 7[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] AND the J[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], since if only one more heart arrives, it won't make Bob a flush?