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I'm having trouble wrapping my head around something. When trying to protect my hand, is making an opponent face two bets cold (which they would be unlikely to call if they don't have the odds to chase their draw) equivalent to facing them with a checkraise (which they'll most likely call and therefore have a chance at busting my hand although they've now paid too much to see their draw)?
Example: Preflop (10 players): Hero is SB with K [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] Q [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] 6 limpers, Hero raises, BB calls, everyone else calls Flop (8 players, 16 SB): A [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] Q [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 4 [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] Hero checks (not sure if this is correct but it is unimportant to conversation), BB bets, 1 caller, Hero calls Turn (3 players, 9.5 BB) K [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] Lets say caller has a T [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] and is therefore only on a gutshot draw; he'll fold facing 2 bets cold but will call a checkraise if already trapped for the first bet. So long as the gutshot caller puts 2 bets into the pot on the turn (which he doesn't have the odds to do) have I protected my hand equivalently regardless of whether this was by BB raising my lead or by me checkraising BB's lead? That is, even if gutshot caller is still in hand thanks to checkraise, and thus has a chance to bust my hand, do I really even care since it was a losing play by him? |
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