3 hands, 1 villain

[Jingleheimer]

.1/.2 6max

Hand #1:
I have $10, Villain covers.

First hand at the table, limped to me in BB with Q4s, I check my option.
Flop is Q94r
Villain in SB leads for pot. I repot, Villain reraises to $6.

Here I think no reads, low stakes = odd plays, I only have 50BB, let's get it in.
Villain has Q9 and I lose.

Thoughts here? How deep do I have to be before I call flop and reassess?

Hand #2: I have $10, Villain covers.
From EP, I pot QQ. Villain calls.
Flop JJ7r
Check, I bet 3/4 pot, villain calls.
Turn A
Check, I bet 1/2 pot, villain calls.
River blank
Check check

Immediately after my turn bet, I felt it was the wrong play. I felt I should have checked.

What do you think about that?

Given his cards (T9?!) it was the best play, but I think in general it is not.

Ok, so that was the history for Hand #3.
I have $16, Villain covers.
I have AQo UTG

I open for pot. Villain calls from BB.
Flop AKTr
Villain leads into me for pot.
This totally threw me- I was used to his passivity with poor hands and obviously I remember getting stacked with the 2 pair.
I call.
Turn blank, he pots again.
I fold.

I would welcome any comments or criticism for all hands.