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Stud n00b warning -- poster is not experienced in seven-card stud (~1000 hands) and is a break-even player. Please forgive his ignorance.
From The Theory of Poker: [ QUOTE ] "I consider 5 percent or less of the average future bets a small ante and 15 percent or more of the average future bets a large ante. Anything in between is an average ante. Thus, $100 would be an average ante in a $1000-$2000 game, while in a $5-$10 game, 50 cents would be an average ante." [/ QUOTE ] At Stars, the ante is exactly 10% of the small bet. That is the definition of the "average ante" given above -- but what does Sklansky mean by "average future bets"? Simply talking about an arithmetic mean, in that $5-$10 game, the "average future bet" would be (2*5 + 3*10) / 5 = $8, which means that 50 cent ante is borderline "small" (6.25%). What is your interpretation of this discussion (in particular what is meant by the term "average future bet"), and would you consider the ante "large" in the 4-8 cent game (1 cent) or the 25-50 cent game (5 cents)? Furthermore, how significant of a play difference would these increased antes entail? Thanks in advance for any insight you all may provide. |
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