3/6 Party -- AK oop -- should I have fired again on turn?

[Mr_Donktastic]

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Villain hasn't played much in 4-5 orbits, therefore you have to assume he's a tight player and got a piece of the flop, probably top pair or top two pair.

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I think this is a terrible assumption to make. All villian did was limp preflop, call a raise and call a bet on the flop. There is no reason to put him on top pair or top two - he could have an underpair or a str8 draw for all we know.


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Ryan,

I don't really think it's a stretch to assume villian is tight. With 8 players at the table, 4-5 orbits is 32-40 hands, and if he's only played 5-6 hands he's under 20% VPIP. If my read on villian is correct that he's tight and possibly passive (which isn't a stretch since he didn't raise on any street), then being UTG with QJ or QT offsuit is a hand he'd probably limp with since these are maginal hands from this position seeking to hit a big flop. Which possibly villain has done.

Adam

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I agree that suited broadway are in his range but where are you getting this info from? Played 5 or 6 hands? Has vpip under 20? Is tight/passive?

Either I'm missing something or you are making all of this up.

This is all OP said:

No stats on Villain. He's been at the table for 4-5 orbits, hasn't played too many hands and hasn't done anything too provocative yet.