Question for a bubble play I made...

[Coffee]

I'm playing in a Stars $20 tourney.

554 entered, paying 54. We are down to Hand-for-Hand(55). Blinds are 400/800 w/50 ante, average stack is ~14000...and I have ~2200.

I'm in the blind, and get dealt A [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]Q [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]. A moderately LAGgish guy raises from middle position, and it folds around to me. After about 15 seconds, I LAY IT DOWN, and mention to the table that I'm laying down A [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]Q [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]. Raiser shows K4 offsuit.

Now...debate breaks out, with one guy yelling at me that I HAD to call there, and two other players supporting his conclusion. I disagreed with him, with my thinking being that the flop is unpredictable, and even if I had him dominated(which I did), I still didn't want to run the risk that he would suck out, and I would bubble out.

Shortly thereafter, the other shortstack moved in and busted out, and I made the money.

So...results aside(because you can do the wrong thing in poker and get paid for it)...did I do the right thing in thinking that making the money was a higher priority than "going for the win," as these guys seemed to think?