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#1
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Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?
I googled this question and got this response:
"Lets look at a simple 2-team parlay using a real example, the Monday Night Football game from this past weekend. St Louis –10.5 over the Rams and a game total of 43.5. Parlaying a side and the total gives us four combinations: a) St Louis –10.5 and Over 43.5 b) St Louis –10.5 and Under 43.5 c) Chicago +10.5 and Over 43.5 d) Chicago +10.5 and Under 43.5 The odds of any one of these plays being a winner are 1-in-4 so the actual odds would be 3/1. In actual fact, most books pay 2.6/1 (you see it commonly written as 13/5) assuming all bets are at stand payoffs (-110). " Okay, seems fair enough, but...from what I've seen on this site 60% is the highest attainable win rate against the spread & o/u over the long haul. This number is probably too high, but let's go with it anyways. If someone is 60% to win against the spread and 60% to win against the over/under, they'll win both on a single game 36% of the time. By using the same math, that makes them 12.96% to win against the spread & the o/u on both games. This makes the odds ~6.7 to 1 instead of the 3 to 1 quoted in the article. Is my logic goofed up? Straighten me up fellas. |
#2
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Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?
because sportsbooks like to make money?
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#3
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Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?
-110 and -110 is +264, it's near enough.
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#4
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Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?
[ QUOTE ]
to win against the spread & the o/u on both games [/ QUOTE ] There's only one game. |
#5
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Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ] to win against the spread & the o/u on both games [/ QUOTE ] There's only one game. [/ QUOTE ] Yeah. I just realized that mistake. So, considering that, if someone is more than 52.5% on a 2-team parlay, they are +EV, correct? |
#6
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Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?
52.5% on 2-team parlays? Where do I sign up for the newsletter?
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#7
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Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?
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52.5% on 2-team parlays? Where do I sign up for the newsletter? [/ QUOTE ] ....per game. |
#8
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Re: Why do 2-team parlays pay 2.6 to 1?
Where are you getting 52.5%? If they pay 2.6-1, you have to win 1/2.6 times, or 27.78% of the time for it to be 0EV.
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