"I'm all in for $700(He actually has $1500)

tom10167 · #1 01-03-2007, 04:55 AM

"I call."
Mayhem insues.

What's the ruling?

Yo'Maha · #2 01-03-2007, 06:13 AM

[ QUOTE ]
"I call."
Mayhem insues.

What's the ruling?

[/ QUOTE ]

I know at the California Casinos, if you had him covered and he stated "all-in", he's all-in regardless of his ability to count.

tom10167 · #3 01-03-2007, 07:16 AM

That's what was ruled here too, it felt dirty to me though.

punkass · #4 01-03-2007, 10:50 AM

yea, he's an idiot. He is definitely all in for what he has in front of him. "All in" has only one option, and that's for all his chips, despite what he thinks he has.

deucedeuce00 · #5 01-03-2007, 11:01 AM

LOL at guy not knowing how much money he has infront of him.

rageotones · #6 01-03-2007, 11:05 AM

he probably knew how much he had but just meant to bet 700. he should have learned his lesson about saying the words "all in" at the 1/2 table. it's much cheaper.

danzasmack · #7 01-03-2007, 11:20 AM

Pretty sure the rule is that the player has to go all in for all his $ and the guy that calls can reconsider now that he knows how much he went all in for. This is because the amount he is calling is actually much higher than what he thought he was calling.

SellingtheDrama · #8 01-03-2007, 11:25 AM

Just ask the dealer "How much is he in for".

If you don't like the answer, call the floor.

Coffee · #9 01-03-2007, 01:39 PM

all in = ALL in...regardless of what he thinks he has, but...I guess you could let him be in for 700 if you want. Did you know that he really had 1500? You may have had the nuts and were calling anything, but to be fair, you thought you were calling 700.

Durs522 · #10 01-03-2007, 01:52 PM

I think there are a few variables in this situation. First, did the guy who called have the $700 covered or was $700 enough to put him all in? Were the hands exposed?

If the hands haven't been exposed and the caller has > $700 I'm letting the caller take his money back and decide if he wants to call the $1500.