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#1
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3/6 Hold'em. Small blind is in for $1 in the form of one white chip. A few limp then the small blind places a red chip with his white--without verbally announcing a raise-- in one smooth motion and clearly with no deceptive intent.
Is this a raise? If no, why? If yes, no explanation needed. |
#2
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It depends...
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#3
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its a CALL only, always
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#4
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Call.
Same logic as the 'single oversized chip' rule. The action is ambiguous. When an action is ambiguous, it is ruled to be the least aggressive alternative. |
#5
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He's putting in $6 and it's not one chip, how is that not a raise? How is putting in $6 when the bet is $3 ambiguous?
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#6
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[ QUOTE ]
He's putting in $6 and it's not one chip, how is that not a raise? How is putting in $6 when the bet is $3 ambiguous? [/ QUOTE ] He is putting one one chip. The $1 is already out there as his blind. He is only putting out one $5 chip when it is his turn to act. If he had reached and grabbed the $1, and then thrown a $1 and a $5 out, that is different. But he didn't do that. Toss a $5 out, pause, grab his $1 and two $1's from the BB. He was just making change. Guess you have never seen that. |
#7
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i disagree, this is absolutely a raise. If he puts in the amount for a raise without pulling anything back or announcing it is a raise every time.
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#8
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[ QUOTE ]
its a CALL only, always [/ QUOTE ] agreed unless he really is a mute |
#9
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This is a call. This also shows why 3-6 should have only $1 chips in play.
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#10
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[ QUOTE ]
This is a call. This also shows why 3-6 should have only $1 chips in play. [/ QUOTE ] |
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