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question about probability and infinite trials
one thing that sort of bugs me abount probability, if i do something an infinite amount of times, each possible outcome will happen an infinite number of times. how can one infinity be more than another? this obviously goes against the basic laws of probability, so how is it in an infinite number of trials each outcome is equally probable if each outcome occurs an infinite number of times?
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#2
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Re: question about probability and infinite trials
You don't understand what infinity means.
Yes, if you did something an infinite number of times (you can't) every possible outcome will happen an infinite number of times. However, the chance that something happens during any countable number of trials will fit whatever probabilities describe the event. If you really want get goofy realize that there are an infinite amount of fractions between any 2 numbers. |
#3
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Re: question about probability and infinite trials
[ QUOTE ]
You don't understand what infinity means. Yes, if you did something an infinite number of times (you can't) every possible outcome will happen an infinite number of times. However, the chance that something happens during any countable number of trials will fit whatever probabilities describe the event. If you really want get goofy realize that there are an infinite amount of fractions between any 2 numbers. [/ QUOTE ] yeah, ive read a few things about that, hotel ad infinitum etc., and was wondering if anyone could give a relatively concise explanation of why mathematical logic seems to break down in infinite circumstances |
#4
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Re: question about probability and infinite trials
If I have an infinitely long rod, and you try to measure it, what's going to happen? How useful is your measurement?
Most math is ultimately the art of measuring something in terms of tangible quantities. |
#5
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Re: question about probability and infinite trials
http://www.sciam.com/article.cfm?art...amp;sc=I100322
2/3*x as x goes to infinity is twice as large as 1/3*x as x goes to infinity, even though both limits equal infinity. Analogously, something that occurs 2/3 of the time will still occur 2/3 of the time even when infinite trials are performed and each results occurs an infinite number of times. |
#6
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Re: question about probability and infinite trials
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ] You don't understand what infinity means. Yes, if you did something an infinite number of times (you can't) every possible outcome will happen an infinite number of times. However, the chance that something happens during any countable number of trials will fit whatever probabilities describe the event. If you really want get goofy realize that there are an infinite amount of fractions between any 2 numbers. [/ QUOTE ] yeah, ive read a few things about that, hotel ad infinitum etc., and was wondering if anyone could give a relatively concise explanation of why mathematical logic seems to break down in infinite circumstances [/ QUOTE ] Mathematical logic didn't break down. The definition of probability is basically how often something is expected (frequency) over a given number of trials. |
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