Implied odds questions
I play in a relatively loose, passive home game, with blinds of 25 and 50 cents. This particular night we were six handed, and I was in the small blind when the following hand came up. I was dealt 56 suited, there was a middle position raise to 2.50, and the dealer called. I had a little under 25 in front of me, and because many of our flops are checked around after a pre flop raise (remember loose passive) I called. The player in the big blind I had played with three times for about three hours each, and had never seen him reraise pre flop, but he calls often, so I figured I was getting good odds on my 2.25 call. He then reraises to 7.50 total. At this point I was 95% sure he had AA or KK. Everyone folds to me. I figure I am between 20 and 25%, probably closer to 20, and I have to call 5 dollars to win the 15 in the pot. 3 to 1 is not quite the right price at the moment, but considering that I know exactly where he is, and he will have no idea if I out flop him, I will win more if I hit, but probably won't lose any if I miss. If I flop a straight or flush draw, I'll be pot committed, so that is hurting my implied odds somewhat, but if I flop a hand that beats his big pair, then I'm gonna get my last 15 or so paid off. Obviously it woud be a lot better to have 100 more in front of me in this spot, but I didnt. In any case, I called, flopped a gut shot straight flush draw, and hit the flush on the river, and my friend now won't stop telling me what an awful play it was. I think his raise was pretty terrible in that it was so small, but thats beside the point.
My quesiton is, did I have the correct implied odds to make that call, or am I just getting too creative?
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10-04-2007, 12:48 PM
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