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  #1  
Old 05-20-2007, 02:59 PM
humdinger humdinger is offline
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Default PItcher bunting ruling question

Watching the CHC/CHW game right now. CHW Pitcher, Masset is in his first major league at bat...runners on 1st and 2nd, one out. He's up there to bunt, obviously.

He square around, and bunts a VERY good bunt up the first base line. It's right down the line, and the firstbaseman for the cubs waits to see if the ball will roll foul. About 45 feet down the line, the ball, foulline, first baseman, and batter are all very close together. The ball is starting to turn towards foul.

If the batter (the CHW pitcher, who is up there strictly to move the runners along) were to kick the ball while it's still in fair territory, what would the ruling be?

I know he'd be out, but would the runners still be allowed to advance? If so, why don't more pitchers do this?

Comments by people more knowledgable than me? This seems like it would be somewhat effective, especially for pitchers who are bad at bunting...

Thanks,

hd
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  #2  
Old 05-20-2007, 03:11 PM
zer0 zer0 is offline
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Default Re: PItcher bunting ruling question

players return to the base, dead ball

kind of obvious
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  #3  
Old 05-20-2007, 03:15 PM
humdinger humdinger is offline
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Default Re: PItcher bunting ruling question

[ QUOTE ]
players return to the base, dead ball

kind of obvious

[/ QUOTE ]

Everything is obvious if you know the answer.

What is the rule? If a batted ball, in fair territory, hits a baserunner (not the batter), what happens? I.e. if runners on 1st and 2nd, ground ball towards right field, hits the runner from first. Does the runner on 2nd get to advance to third, or no?
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  #4  
Old 05-20-2007, 03:37 PM
Jack of Arcades Jack of Arcades is offline
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Default Re: PItcher bunting ruling question

Edited for the relevant data:

7.08
Any runner is out when --
(f) He is touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed an infielder. The ball is dead and no runner may score, nor runners advance, except runners forced to advance. EXCEPTION: If a runner is touching his base when touched by an Infield Fly, he is not out, although the batter is out;
Rule 7.08(f) Comment: If two runners are touched by the same fair ball, only the first one is out because the ball is instantly dead.

Therefore, the runners move up a base and it's a successful sacrifice, it would seem.
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  #5  
Old 05-20-2007, 05:41 PM
vhawk01 vhawk01 is offline
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Default Re: PItcher bunting ruling question

I'm pretty sure the runners would move up. Its similar to if a groundball hits a guy going first to second, the guy going second to third gets to advance and the hitter gets first.
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  #6  
Old 05-20-2007, 06:42 PM
humdinger humdinger is offline
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Default Re: PItcher bunting ruling question

So, is zer0 wrong? He sounded so sure.

I don't mean that as an insult. My intuition would say he's right, or there'd be some bunters kicking balls to guarantee a successful sacrifice, wouldn't there?
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  #7  
Old 05-20-2007, 07:14 PM
Jack of Arcades Jack of Arcades is offline
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Default Re: PItcher bunting ruling question

A lot of the value of a sacrifice attempt is the chance of reaching base safely.
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  #8  
Old 05-20-2007, 11:13 PM
jstnrgrs jstnrgrs is offline
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Default Re: PItcher bunting ruling question

By my reading of the rule, the runners don't advance. The only runners who are allowed to advance are those that are forced to advance. Once the batter is out, no one is forced to advance, so no one advances.



I could be wrong though.
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  #9  
Old 05-20-2007, 11:42 PM
vhawk01 vhawk01 is offline
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Default Re: PItcher bunting ruling question

How could anyone be forced to advance ever, then, in your interpretation?
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  #10  
Old 05-20-2007, 11:45 PM
lippy lippy is offline
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Default Re: PItcher bunting ruling question

[ QUOTE ]
How could anyone be forced to advance ever, then, in your interpretation?

[/ QUOTE ]

Think of it as though they would be out by a force play... then they're being forced.
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