#1
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What percent of villain\'s range must we be ahead of to 3-bet?
I was just thinking about three betting preflop. Let's say we have 10k hands on villain from datamining so our read is pretty reliable.
We are on button, villain is CO, and he open raises 18% of hands from this position. What percent of this 18% range must we be ahead of in order to make a 3-bet +EV... Is it simply 50%??? We would probably have to make it closer to 75% as we only get 4-bet by the top of his range right? Was just wondering if there was a clear cut solution/reasonable estimate that you guys know of. thank you... bad |
#2
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Re: What percent of villain\'s range must we be ahead of to 3-bet?
in position i would 3 bet the majority to take it away on the flop (in position) but i am kinda loose lol
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#3
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Re: What percent of villain\'s range must we be ahead of to 3-bet?
To be more specific I'm referring to Limit hold'em.
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#4
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Re: What percent of villain\'s range must we be ahead of to 3-bet?
[ QUOTE ]
To be more specific I'm referring to Limit hold'em. [/ QUOTE ] dont play limit holdem. |
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