#1
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8:1 flopping a Jack vs. an Ace
Sklansky states on p. 34 in No limit Hold'em that it is 8:1 to hit a jack and not an ace on the flop. Does anyone know how to calculate that?
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#2
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Re: 8:1 flopping a Jack vs. an Ace
[ QUOTE ]
Sklansky states on p. 34 in No limit Hold'em that it is 8:1 to hit a jack and not an ace on the flop. Does anyone know how to calculate that? [/ QUOTE ] He is talking about you holding JJ and your opponent holding AA, and then the probability that you flop exactly 1 jack with no ace is: 2/48 * 44/47 * 43/46 * 3 =~ 1 in 9.1 or 8.1-to-1 where we multiply by 3 since the jack can come on any of the 3 cards. We can also do this as 2*C(44,2)/C(48,3) =~ 1 in 9.1 or 8.1-to-1. For 1 or 2 jacks and no ace this would be [2*C(44,2) + 1*44]/C(48,3) =~ 1 in 8.9 or 7.9-to-1. |
#3
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Re: 8:1 flopping a Jack vs. an Ace
Actually, the example is you have JJ, you're up against AA (and you saw the cards), and you will only get it all-in on the flop if it comes down Jxx with no ace. Of course, the math is the same.
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#4
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Re: 8:1 flopping a Jack vs. an Ace
[ QUOTE ]
Actually, the example is you have JJ, you're up against AA (and you saw the cards), and you will only get it all-in on the flop if it comes down Jxx with no ace. Of course, the math is the same. [/ QUOTE ] Thanks, I corrected the above post. |
#5
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Re: 8:1 flopping a Jack vs. an Ace
thanks
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