Pre-flop odds on hands

[malayagrawal]

I'm sure I could find the answer in a book, but I would appreciate an answer here from someone who probably knows on the tip of his/her tongue. For the hands where I give specific holdings, I am just illustrating a general issue (e.g. pocket pair against one higher card and one lower card).

Pocket pair against lower pair is 4:1 or 4.5:1, right?
Pocket pair against two higher cards is coin flip (that I know)
What is it when I have KJ and villain has Q8?
KJ vs. K9?
QQ vs. K9?
AA vs. 85?
KJ vs. 34?

There are probably other general combinations I can't think of right now, I would appreciate info on those as well. As best as I can tell, the lowest percentage of winning a hand with any two cards if it goes all the way to river is 20-30%. So you are "priced in" with any two cards when you are getting 3:1 or definitely 4:1 (implied odds are probably very good when you hit your hand against multiple players).

Thanks, this comes up because at a home game (NLHE 0.25/0.5) I was BB with J6s. UTG raised to $4, there were two other callers, so I called. Flop had 356, SB bet $3, I went all in for $15.50. Original raiser and SB folded. MP called and had AJ and lost. Original raiser had 10/10 and SB had 8/8 and were upset that pair of 6s won and that I called original bet. I feel I was priced in, got a piece of the flop, and outplayed them. As you can see, this is a pretty loose home game with not good players (I got called by the worst hand).

[metsandfinsfan]

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What is it when I have KJ and villain has Q8?

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about 65-35

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KJ vs. K9?

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about 72-28

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QQ vs. K9?

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about 70-30

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AA vs. 85?

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about 83-17

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KJ vs. 34?

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about 65-35



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[10101022]

Caro's extensive odds charts:

http://www.poker1.com/mcu/mculib_odds.asp