4 8 suited -- what am I missing?

[ChipFerFree]

Ok this isn't really a horrible beat but it really causes me to wonder.



Here's Scene 1:
I'm in a MTT with over 2000 people. There are only about 200 left. We are in the money but blinds are now painful unless you are in the top 30.

Blinds are 1000/2000
I'm under the gun on a full table
I have about 20000 chips
I bet 8000
I am called by someone in middle position and this person has about 25,000 chips
All else fold
Flop comes out 4 9 J rainbow
Being first to act I go all in
I am called and lose to the guy's 84 suited

Why did he call 1/3 of his stack pre-flop like that?
And further -- why would he go the rest of the way with bottom pair. Lord he must have been in my den with me!

still smokin...
Hornet

[deaders]

Those are some deep and difficult questions that you are asking... the answers to which are contained in this simple picture:

[durkahdurkah]

You know, it all seemed so illogical until I read to here:

[ QUOTE ]
I'm in a MTT with over 2000 people.

[/ QUOTE ]

[Brad1970]

Obviously, he called you with the best hand, didn't he?

[The Truth]

Just push PF you donk.

[Hattifnatt]

implied odds.

[Kala1928]

He put you on AK.

[capone0]

I've played with way too many idiots. They would probally say "I had a flush draw, I had to see the flop."

[Hattifnatt]

[ QUOTE ]
I've played with way too many idiots. They would probally say "I had a flush draw, I had to see the flop."

[/ QUOTE ]
yes probably, but he did have a flush draw before the flop.

[Supwithbates]

if he was BB with a bigger stack he could conceivably call with any 2 since it was obvious you were pushing
that's why the standard raise with a 10 BB stack is so ridiculous
you're the donkey for not just pushing preflop