[holdem2000]

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FWIW currently have a standard deviation of 1.14 ptBB/100 on that winrate

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the 1.14 number I gave you is the standard deviation on my winrate for the 117K hand sample.

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So 1.14ptBB/117k

By the way, did you convert that the right way? You know you have to convert from SD to variance, multiply, and then convert back?

Also, most statistics problems are written within 2 standard deviations (95%) as opposed to one standard deviation (68%).

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Edit: pokerboy did a lot of this in a different post while I was typing this, I'll leave this up though.

So when I'm saying a standard deviation of 1.14 ptBB/100 over 117K hands the ptBB/100 is still the units I'm measuring winrate & SD in even if my sample is larger... reporting it as something like total profit with the SD of the profit in dollars is probably clearer... maybe SD = 1.14 ptBB/100 (117K hands) is a decent way to write it.

Yea, I converted it right... could find it by taking my SD for a 100 hand sample, squaring it to get the variance, multiplying by 1170 to get the variance of a 117K hand sample, square-rooting to get the SD, but so far we have the SD measured in just big bets instead of BB/100, so we divide by 1170:
SD = sqrt(38.84^2 * 1170) / 1170 = 1.14... or once you've done it enough times you remember that to convert a SD from a 100 hand sample to a 117K hand sample you just divide by sqrt(1170):
SD = 38.84 / sqrt(1170) = 1.14

The +/- 1 SD notation is used in physics and a couple other fields for reporting the standard deviation and then something like a 95% confidence interval is often provided separately. Not sure why +/- 1 SD is ever used, it is pretty misleading, but some fields use it as convention.

OP, sorry for the bit of a hijack here.