Re: c-bet this flop?
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why 67%?
Each opponent has about 33% to hit
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Like you said, they'll hit 33% of the time. So, 1 - 0.33 = 0.67, or 67%. [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]
So, it is a field of three? The preflop action kinda confused me since it showed UTG+2 folding and then calling.
The odds of both of them missing the flop, then, would be 0.67 * 0.67 = 0.45, or 45%. Since you're investing one small bet to potentially win six, you only need to be successful here 15% of the time for this to be a profitable play. Since 45% is far greater than 15%, betting seems right (remember that they can't fold if you don't bet). [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]
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I believe that 33% statistic of hitting the flop only applies to whether someone paired up their hold cards if they were unpaired. It does not take into account whether they hit the flop w/ some kind of draw, which would then over take your hand as the favorite. Of course, you've been behind all along if someone had a PP to begin with.
The pot is not large, the flop missed us as badly as it can. Next hand please.
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