[JJNJustin]

I often wonder about the generic 1BB/hr figure that has been listed in so many 2+2 books and how the writers arrived at that figure. Unlike some of their other statistics, there arent really any equations or derivations on how to estimate such a figure. Granted, there are many more intangible factors.

I did a little experiment though, that I thought might be interesting to some of you. I used Wilson Turbo Texas Hold'em and played in a 10-handed game at normal rake with my opponents' cards face up. Playing this way, I was able to average 15 bb/hr. This is an ideal situation and obviously nobody could ever play this perfectly, but if playing in this game yielded 15 BB/hr despite the rake, wouldnt it be totally reasonable for a very good player to earn something like 3-4 BB/hr, especially if his opponents are playing in very predictable ways (i.e. with their cards face up)? Isnt the 1 BB/hr figure a very modest estimate, and dont some of you average like 3-5 BB/hr ? Shouldnt it be at least conceivable?

-J