[Buzz]

[ QUOTE ]
If one of your opponents is drawing to the nut flush and the another one has a set of Kings, then it is correct for them to call a 2-bet on the turn.

[/ QUOTE ]Tilt_Monkey - I guess you mean BB and UTG+1. It's very possible one of them has the nut flush draw and the other has a set of kings. And if that is what they hold, they will both surely call another double bet. But it's also possible one of them has the 2nd nut flush draw and the other has a set of queens, tens, or even deuces - and in that case, somebody without the nut draw might think:[ QUOTE ]
"And would it have been worth it, after all,
After the cups, the marmalade, the tea,
Among the porcelain, among some talk of you and me,"

[/ QUOTE ]and thinking that, or maybe just the first line of it, might fold to a second double bet.

If BB and UTG+1 have nut draws (top set and nut flush draw) then they are getting enourmously favorable implied pot odds (something in the neighborhood of 10 to 1) to call one double bet, and then having called that, will be getting even better implied pot odds to call the second double bet.

But if they anticipated a second double bet (as they perhaps should have) then they are only getting in the neighborhood of 6 to 1 implied pot odds. That's still good enough for a set of kings, but (depending on the exact cards held) probably just a bit short for the nut flush draw (although it's close enough that along with the possibility of not another double bet, I'd call the first double bet, and then also the second, with the nut flush draw).

Buzz