[Onaflag]

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
then if we bet 1/2 pot they get pot odds of 2:1 which is pretty much what they need.

[/ QUOTE ]

If you bet 1/2 pot, then he is getting 3/1 on his call. Pot (2x the bet) + Bet = 3x your bet

$10 pot + $5 Bet = $15 in middle, he has to call $5. 15/5 = 3/1

[/ QUOTE ]

1/4 pot bet gives villain 5-1
1/3 pot bet gives villain 4-1
1/2 pot bet gives villain 3-1
2/3 pot bet gives villain 2.5
3/4 pot bet gives villain 2.3-1
1/1 pot bet gives villain 2-1

Where I make most of my mistakes is when I bet 1/2 pot giving villain implied odds only to hit either his flush or straight draw and then paying off a little bit when he does by maybe calling a smallish turn bet.

Here's my question - if you're trying to price out a draw and that draw appears to come in, do you just give up to ensure you're not giving implied odds to your opponent?

ex: 100BB effective stacks. You raise black aces 4x OTB and get one caller. Pot is 8BB. Flop has 2 hearts, no straight draws. Checked to you and you bet 1/2 pot. Villain calls.

Turn completes the flush and villain leads repping the flush. To deny implied odds, is this an auto fold?

Why do I get the feeling I'm leaving something out and "it depends" is the correct answer?

Thanks for this thread. We all appreciate it.

Onaflag...........