[pvn]

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Oh, now there IS a difference? Which is it?

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There is a difference between private and public goods, never said otherwise.

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But you said there was no differece between tangible and intangible property.

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LOL. Government cannot eliminate or reduce transaction costs. It simply shifts them, transfers them, and masks them.

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In fact they can.

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Assert your way to victory! How does this magic occur, exactly?

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As for Coase, he himself explicitly recognized and pointed out cases of private production of so-called "public" goods.

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If you read my previous post I'm aware of those cases. It's like pointing out that there are theoretical cases in which the government can work efficiently and create a first best world even the market mechanism couldn't achieve.

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I have no idea what you're trying to say here. What does an expose of supposed public goods being effectively provided by private means have to do with creating a "first best world" (whatver that is) where central planners magically outperform the market? If anything, it's the exact opposite.

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Still, are you aware of the effect of transaction cost on your AC society?

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Yes and no. I advocate no particular society, so it's impossible to predict what transaction costs will be. But regardless, you seem to be willfully ignoring the transaction costs in your statist society.