[omgwtfnoway]

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think about it as the effective stack decreasing at the same blinds instead of the blinds going up and you'll see that in the later stages of the tourney variance is decreasing as effective stack (in bb) decreases).

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But you *can't* think about it like that.

Because it's *not* just like that.

comparing $100 at 0.5/1 vs $10 at 0.5/1 is *very* different than comparing $100 at 0.5/1 vs $100 at $5/$10.

In fact, in your all-in 60/40 example, the variance (as a percentage of your bankroll, or real $, take your pick), HAS to be exactly the same whether you're at 0.5/1 or 5/10, because every hand, you're betting all-in with a 60% chance to win. The fact that the blinds are different in the two cases is completely irrelevant. You're simply betting $100 with a 60% chance to win.

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no i'm not, in one case i'm betting $10 at a time with a 60% chance to win, in the other i'm betting $100 with a 60% chance to win.

stop posting about same buyins at different blind levels and normalize the stacks in terms of bb.

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But you *can't* think about it like that.

Because it's *not* just like that.

[/ QUOTE ]these are the kind of baseless arguments you've accussed me of making throughout the thread. SHOW ME why i can't think about it like that.

edit: done ninja editing