[pvn]

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In this case, the statist still believes that some force to coerce citizens is "legitimate" - so the accusation that this statist endorses violence against others is valid. The fact that this statist thinks that *some* force is "over the line" is irrelevant.

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In the example I gave, the state's use of force is legitimate when it is protecting someone's property. Protection of property is one your core values, isn't it?

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Yes, but in your example, you're ignoring how that legitimate use of force is funded.

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That doesn't mean that the theory of the state, or the ideal notion most people have of it, includes illegitimate force.

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Please show us a state, "ideal" or otherwise, that doesn't include initiation of coercive force.