[Propertarian]

Perhaps the free rider problem is good then? Or perhaps we'd have a society with all worker controlled and owned firms if it were not for the free rider problem. Or perhaps people think both violence and inequality are wrong?

Anyway, here's a question for you and HMK: Did the civil rights movement occur in the 1950s and 1960s (as opposed to sometime during the previous 90 years) because A) Minority groups were not hopping mad about segregation and discrimination until the 1950s or B) Some other reason?

I rest my case.