[Zetack]

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was watching a High Stakes poker and saw a hand in which Matesow and farha decided to run the flop twice (Mat had TT, farha AA). Matasow hit his set on the river of the last run, farha's AA held up on the first run, for a split pot. Why would farha agree to run it twice if he knew he had an advantage? Seems he knowingly gave Matasow twice the opportunity to hit and crack his aces.

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Its really a matter of taste. Folks who are better at this kinda thing than I am have run the math and your expected value does not change whether you run it once or more than once. So in the long run it makes no difference.

There are obvious psychological reasons a person might want to run it more than once. Me, I prefer to stick to once, let the cards fall where they may, but I'll go along with someone who really wants to run it more than once if it makes them happy, but I'd rather run it three times than two in that situation.