running it twice
was watching a High Stakes poker and saw a hand in which Matesow and farha decided to run the flop twice (Mat had TT, farha AA). Matasow hit his set on the river of the last run, farha's AA held up on the first run, for a split pot. Why would farha agree to run it twice if he knew he had an advantage? Seems he knowingly gave Matasow twice the opportunity to hit and crack his aces.
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