[Lucere]

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For example, say you have $100. If you play the $100 as a 50bb stack in a $1-$2 game, your variance will be higher than if you play the $100 as a 200bb stack in a $.25-$.50 game.

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This makes sense.

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However, playing a $100 stack in a $1-$2 game will still be lower variance than playing a larger stack in a $1-$2 game.

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However, this doesn't. Maybe I'm just thinking about this incorrectly, so if that's the case, someone help me get this.

It seems like if we're talking in terms of stack sizes relative to the blind sizes, and NOT in terms of absolute dollar amounts, that the more you increase your amount of BBs (e.g., 50BB to 100BB to 200BB, etc.) in your original buy in, that there will be less variance.

It is with this logic that $100 as a 50BB buy in in a 1/2 game has more variance than a $100 buy in as a 200BB buy in in a .25/.50 game.

So, using the same logic, why would playing a $100 (50BB) stack in a 1/2 game have less variance than say a $200 (100BB) stack in a 1/2 game?