[Matt Flynn]

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On page 18 in the hand where you hold 8c6c on a Qh7c5d flop you say that you are 5-to-1 against hitting your straight on the next card.

When determining outs on the flop why did you only calculate your chance with only one card to come? Since there are two cards to come wouldn't you use the 4 times rule?

We would then be sitting nearly 3-to-1 against, making it profitable to call getting 3.2-to-1 pot odds before even considering implied odds.

Obviosly it is still a call (or arguably a raise) but I was just wondering if my logic and understanding of the concept is correct.

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this is because your opponent can drop a big bet on you on the turn.

if you're calling all-in you won't face another bet and so count it as two cards to come. when there's a lot of money behind, you may not get to see that second card and so should not count it. you might allow yourself a little wiggle room for those times your opponent checks the turn, picking something between the odds of hitting in one card and the odds of hitting in two.

on the other hand, you may well want to semibluff the turn if he checks, so again you wouldn't figure it out based on having two cards coming.