Morals!
I thought it would be fun to revisit one of the fundamentals of the SM&P: hypothetical moral situations. So here is the fairly simple scenario:
A woman and a man are in a relationship. One of them intentionally undermines/discontinues/sabotages the couple's means of birth control without consenting the other. A child is concieved.
Preliminary question:
How immoral is 'blocking' the birth control by the individual acting alone?
Deeper questions:
Assuming the 'blocking' is proved to be intentional and without mutual consent, should there be any legal basis for damages?
Could/should it alter the dynamics of right to abortion?
Could/should it affect child support?
What are the key differences between this act when committed by the woman versus committed by the man?
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