AKs, trying to learn a little more about the math of poker.
NL400, 6max (5 handed)
14/9 player UTG raises to $16
Hero in SB raises to $44 with A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]K[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]
UTG calls
Flop ($83) T[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]8[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]6[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]
I bet $70, he thinks and pushes for effectively $400 more.
386:622. I've gotta have 38.5%+ equity.
What's a fair range distribution (assuming I have A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]K[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]?)
Would you rather call with A[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] or A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]K[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] here?
* * *
Scenario 2.
Same thing except I'm SB, Villain is BB.
UTG raises to 16, I raise to 44, BB cold calls, UTG folds.
Same flop action. Does this change your play? Does this change your range distribution for villain?
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