[overun]

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> [x] above hand is ficticious
And so what?

>shove b/c
what does that mean? (sorry, not familiar with the term) should I shove, or should I bet and call a shove?

Anyway, I can hear you are not folding an overpair at this point. Is this correct? It doesn't sound good to me, not to able to fold an overpair. What exactly are we ahead of here? JJ TT, maybe A9s (if he is a bad player and would call with that kind of hand, but it is unlikely). QQ most people would have 4-bet pf, against a relatively unknown opponent, so QQ is very unlikely. 9Ts is a possibility, but most people would have folded it preflop, like A9s. Suited connectors that didn't connect with the flop would have been folded to our flop bet.

By the way I agree that it hard to fold the hand at this point, so honestly I wouldn't know what would be the best thing to do, that is why I am asking here. Does anybody know anything teoretically about this? It is a common situation. If anybody knows something teoretical, thay should be able to explain.

Other opinions would be appreciated - explain your strategy please (if you got the capacity to do). Don't just say what to do, nobody will learn much from that .

IT'S THE HAND 2 POSTS ABOVE WE ARE TALKING ABOUT NOW!

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Taking some strategy and viewpoints from PNL...

We can look at this hand in terms of Stack-to-Pot-Ratio, or SPR. SPR is the amount of $$ that's in the flop as a ratio of the smallest stack in play. So, in this case, the flop is ~$200 and the smallest stack in play after the preflop action is about ~$600, giving an SPR of ~3.

Generally, with overpairs/TPTK type of hands, it is "okay" to commit all your chips when your SPR is 4.5ish, and still be +EV. So, with an SPR of 3 in this RR pot, you should not be looking to "minimize my losses", but rather, to get all the chips in some way or another. By betting flop, then pushing turn, it accomplishes that well.

I've been following this guideline, but I'm not exactly too sure of how true the +EV statement is just yet.