[Kaj]

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The distinction is important, because if someone says they don't believe in property "rights" but will act to stop someone from taking their property then that's contradictory. If you believe that "people will just be generally better off" if you stop them from stealing, you also need to feel that you have a "right" to stop them in order to take action. This "right" can be interpretted as a property right.

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This is totally false. The easiest example to refute being that I can force my neighbor to stop abusing his kid. This does not imply that I believe I have a right to do it, it is just my own value judgment as far as what preferences of mine I am willing to use force to impose. Why is this concept difficult?

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But why do you prefer to use force here?

You could also use force to stop your neighbor from mowing his yard. Why didn't you use that as an example?

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I prefer to use force here because I value a child's well being more than a blade of grass's well being. What's the problem?