clarifying money supply increases --> inflation
the whole bernanke inflation thread episode i think left some unanswered questions (well it did for me).
one point i'd like to clarify is the contention that changes in M2 show up eventually in price changes, i.e. inflation.
i'd like to tease out exactly the contention here and then test it since i believe we can.
so first question:
what is the austrian hypothesis regarding the supply of money changes flowing through to overall price changes in the economy?
thanks,
Barron
PS- obviously this is not a fly off the handle thread so all insults and crazy comments about me or comments about me being crazy should, imo, be left in the other thread.
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