[pocketset]

NL 0.25/0.5, I have 40$ and am covered by both guys in the hand. Button was LAG, 40/22, playing his middle/bottompairs very agressive until showdown.

UTG limps, I limp in MP1 with A[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] T[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img], MP2 limps, Button limps, BB checks.

Flop 7[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 9[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] T[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] (2.25$)

BB checks, UTG checks, <font color="red"> Hero bets 2$</font>, MP2 calls 2$, <font color="red">Button raises to 6$</font>, BB folds, UTG folds, Hero ?

I had a controversial discussion with my buddy, as he was sitting behind me while I was playing. I pushed, but was "berated" afterwards. His idea was just to call the Button-raise to try and keep MP2 in the hand.

But my thinking was like "I have a vulnerable TPTK, and Button could be doing this with overcards, so I push. If I'm called by something that beats me now (2pair, overpair) I have decent outs, I'm only a serious dog against a set."

Which line of thought is "the correct" one ?

a) Push the flop, building a lot of FE and winning the pot uncontested most of the time
or
b) only calling the flopraise to keep MP2 in the hand, to hit biiiig when the flush turns.

My problem with approach b) is that my TP is vulnerable. I don't want to see a 6, 7, 8, 9, J, Q or K on the board, only with A or T (or any club...) I'm happy.
If I only call the flopraise, and a K turns, what is my plan ?