So you are assuming that the first woman is rejected, and you are allowing for the possibility that your method will not select a woman? (For instance, they might leave in reverse order of attractiveness, in which case this event contributes zero to the overall probability.) Further, you are assuming that all of the women have distinct attractiveness levels?
So, in the case n=2, you get 1/2, since the second woman is either more or less attractive than the first. Is this correct? You are evaluating the women one by one? Or do you first pick some # that "must" go by, after which you pick the first one that exceeds the attractiveness of this group?
wiki link...beware this is a spoiler!