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Old 11-03-2007, 04:24 PM
TNixon TNixon is offline
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Join Date: Apr 2007
Posts: 616
Default Re: Swings in NLCASH

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Tnixon , you need to learn how to read the original post .

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You need to read the original post, and then read the rest of them, and then learn to UNDERSTAND what people are actually asking. Seriously, your reading comprehension sucks major ass.

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I'm a sixmax player and have 5-7 buyin downswings with the occasional 10-12 buyin downer. How much 'worse' can I expect it to be in headsup?

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That is quite clearly a question about how drastic downswings can be, and the question was quite clearly framed in terms of "X buyin downswings".

Furthermore, even if by some amazing miracle, that question wasn't actually asking how much bigger the swings can be (although how you could posssibly misread such a simple question is *completely* beyond me) there have been many other posts in the thread that are obviously quite specifically talking about the odds of downswings over a period of time. You have tried to answer those questions using RoR calculations, but there are really two possible questions here:

#1: What are the chances that I'm going to have a 20 buyin downswing starting RIGHT NOW.

#2: What are the chance of having a 20 buyin downswing starting at any point over the next X hands.

RoR is actually an upper bound on the answer to question one, and that is apparently the question you keep answering repeatedly.

However, not only is question #1 not what people generally mean when asking about downswings, but it is completely inappropriate to try to answer questions about the frequency of 20BI downswings (such as how likely it is to have at least one per month, which is another specific situation that has been mentioned).

You keep giving an answer to question #1, but that IS NOT THE QUESTION AT HAND. Nobody gives a [censored] if the downswing starts NOW. They care if it's going to happen at *any* point over the next X number of hands.

Lets say we want to know how likely it is to have a 20 buyin downswing over the next 1500 hands. If we go up for 1k hands, and *then* start a 20 buyin downswing that lasts 500 hands, that is still a 20 buyin downswing at some point in the next 1500 hands even though it didn't start at the beginning of the 1500 hands.

And this is exactly where your complete lack of comprehension comes in.

In the past, you've said that I'm not very good at making myself clear.

But it honestly does not get any more clear than this. If you still cannot understand why you are completely off-base, and have been through this entire thread, then the problem is not my lack of clarity, it's YOUR lack of understanding and comprehension.

But since you're so convinced you know what the original post was asking, and that you've sufficiently answered, lets ask?

Juggernaut, if you're still around (which is highly unlikely), could you please comment on whether Question #1 or #2 is more relevant to what you were asking to begin with?

I know the answer, but apparently jay_shark needs to hear it from somebody other than me. Which makes some amount of sense, because I've made the price of admission *very* high by now.
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