[elwoodblues]

Tomcollins (I think, I didn't look again --- sorry if it wasn't you) has posted this question a few times and I had a similar question in a thread a while back that didn't get any attention. The ultimate question is (as Tom has put it): Why isn't our current system considered AC? My question was more of a hypothetical:

Consider the following: ACland opens for business. People acquire their initial properties from homesteading. Soon people find that they want to maintain some semblance of order amongst their neighbors, so they create what are essentially homeowners associations. The HOA's rules are written so that once a person enters the HOA they are given a vote to elect members who will set rules for the HOA (noise ordinances, where you can keep your trash, park your vehicle, etc.) These HOAs would spring up naturally all over the place (I would suspect.) Once a member of the HOA, your property is encumbered by the rules (i.e. all HOA rules run with the land.) HOAs might soon band together and create towns (to minimize costs of, for example, police, fire protection, schools.) Heck, towns might form together to create states (and so on.) If all available real estate were eventually a part of an HOA (or a larger town, county, state, country) has AC evolved to statehood? Would that state be considered AC even if in 5 generations none of the existing property owners actively consented to the original creation of the HOA?