[Lestat]

<font color="blue">despite the fact that this statement is simple and obvious and will get no argument from anyone (once you understand what is and isn't being said), the implications, to me, are profound. </font>

I guess I'm being dumb, but I think I can be counted as someone who doesn't understand what is and isn't being said.

<font color="blue">if we know someone has used an illogical method to arrive at an answer to a yes/no question, and that is ALL that we know, then, given the information we have, they are 50% to be correct. </font>

Why is this true?

Example: There either is, or isn't a god. If you were willing to place your world views at the mercy of a coin flip with heads meaning there is a god, and tails meaning there isn't, you would have a 50% chance of arriving at the correct answer. However, if you use illogical thought, you are MORE likely to arrive at a WRONG answer and therefore, are LESS than 50% to be right about whether there is, or isn't a god. Do you dispute this?

I know you think I'm being a nit, or purposely finding fault, but I don't think you're saying what you really mean. Either that, or you're WAY over my head with this logic thing.