[Nate.]

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PokerBob--

Anyone who won't fold any pair here will have all sorts of no-pair hands here. Why does he need to put us on an 8 to fold 33 or K5 or 62s, anyway? After all, he's either a terrible hand-range analyst, or he knows that it's terrible to have a narrow betting range in Hero's spot.

--Nate

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in my experience, guys who flop pairs don't fold them.

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PokerBob--

(A) I think that statement is nowhere near true.

(B) As I've said a few times, he doesn't need to fold a pair for the bet to be correct.

--Nate

EDIT: Looks like you edited the post. You seem not to be paying attention. Not only do almost all opponents fold some pairs here, what you wrote is not a sufficient condition for a bet to be incorrect even if you were right. If you think through what this* would imply about his flop and preflop calling ranges, you end up with a pretty incoherent picture of how Villain plays poker.

*this here referring to a situation where an opponent wouldn't fold a pair and yet wouldn't have many unpaired hands in the first place

EDIT 2: Gah, PokerBob edited the post I'm responded to again. That's twice just for this post, after several more posts had occurred in the thread. Trust me, gentle reader. Anyway, I've repeated my position enough now. What PB is saying just doesn't outweigh the obvious benefits of betting.