[Al_Capone_Junior]

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Gaming regulations prohibit them from raking more than 10% from a game, and raking the BBJ/HHJ drop would put 'em over 10%.

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Wouldn't that only be true if the $1 that constitutes the jackpot drop is also counted toward the raked pot?

For example, take a 1/2NL game with a 10% to $4 rake. The last dollar is taken out at $40, and the jackpot drop is taken out at $20.

Consider a gross pot of $40. $1 got taken out for the jackpot at $20, leaving $39. Only $3 got taken out for rake, because pot after jackpot drop < $40. Total rake is $3 + $.10 that will be raked from the jackpot. $3.10 < 10% * $40.

Now consider a gross pot of $41. $1 got taken out for the jackpot at $20, leaving $40. As a result, $4 was raked from the pot. Total rake is $4 + $.10 on the jackpot. $4.10 = 10% * $41.

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On a pot of $35 or more, the house rounds up and the rake would be $4. So the information is not correct.
The BBJ collection can be taken at what ever the house decides is a qualifying pot.

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With 10% to $4 + $1 for the jackpot taken at $20, a $40 pot would have $4 in rake, $1 jackpot, and $35 available to win by the players. This is very much standard, all rake and jackpot dollars count towards total pot size. If there were only $20 in the pot, $2 is for rake, $1 for jackpot, and $17 available to win by players.

There is no rounding up. A $19 pot takes $1 in rake ** and nothing for the jackpot because it does not qualify. Rounding up would exceed the 10% max.

Al

** assumes there is no breakage below $1 chips, i.e. no coin is used